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ConquerGmat

为了梦想...
执着 努力 坚持 让青春飞扬


ConquerGmat @ 2007-04-18 15:06

Forget everything, just keep reading. 
You can make it.
To me also to Gary.

To Gary,
Don't forget review the vocabulary.
2 lists everyday. Don't forget.
You can make it !

Cora




 
ConquerGmat @ 2007-04-18 01:59

18  
单词 数学 1
单词 toefl L4L5 2
单词 收录的单词 0.5
语法 整理白勇chpt3 2
语法 新东方教程L8  
逻辑 新东方教程15 2
阅读 OG10 8-11 new阅读2篇 5
作文 题库  
阅读 课外阅读  
   


 
ConquerGmat @ 2007-04-17 23:31

Understanding Gene Testing

Glossary


 

Acquired mutations:
gene changes that arise within individual cells and accumulate throughout a person's lifetime; also called somatic mutations. (See Hereditary mutation.)
Alleles:
variant forms of the same gene. Different alleles produce variations in inherited characteristics such as eye color or blood type.
Alzheimer's disease:
a disease that causes memory loss, personality changes, dementia and, ultimately, death. Not all cases are inherited, but genes have been found for familial forms of Alzheimer's disease.
Amino acid:
any of a class of 20 molecules that combine to form proteins in living things.
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis:
an inherited, fatal degenerative nerve disorder; also known as Lou Gehrig's disease.
Autosome:
any of the non-sex-determining chromosomes. Human cells have 22 pairs of autosomes.
Base pairs:
the two complementary, nitrogen-rich molecules held together by weak chemical bonds. Two strands of DNA are held together in the shape of a double helix by the bonds between their base pairs. (See Chemical base.)
BRCA1:
a gene that normally helps to restrain cell growth.
BRCA1 breast cancer susceptibility gene:
a mutated version of BRCA1, which predisposes a person toward developing breast cancer.
Carrier:
a person who has a recessive mutated gene, together with its normal allele. Carriers do not usually develop disease but can pass the mutated gene on to their children.
Carrier testing:
testing to identify individuals who carry disease-causing recessive genes that could be inherited by their children. Carrier testing is designed for healthy people who have no symptoms of disease, but who are known to be at high risk because of family history.
Cell:
small, watery, membrane-bound compartment filled with chemicals; the basic subunit of any living thing.
Chemical base:
an essential building block. DNA contains four complementary bases: adenine, which pairs with thymine, and cytosine, which pairs with guanine. In RNA, thymine is replaced by uracil.
Chromosomes:
structures found in the nucleus of a cell, which contain the genes. Chromosomes come in pairs, and a normal human cell contains 46 chromosomes, 22 pairs of autosomes and two sex chromosomes.
Clone:
a group of identical genes, cells, or organisms derived from a single ancestor.
Cloning:
the process of making genetically identical copies.
Contig maps:
types of physical DNA maps that consist of overlapping segments of DNA (contigs) that, taken together, completely represent that section of the genome. (See Physical maps.)
Colonoscopy:
examination of the colon through a flexible, lighted instrument called a colonoscope.
Crossing over:
a phenomenon, also known as recombination, that sometimes occurs during the formation of sperm and egg cells (meiosis); a pair of chromosomes (one from the mother and the other from the father) break and trade segments with one another.
Cystic fibrosis:
an inherited disease in which a thick mucus clogs the lungs and blocks the ducts of the pancreas.
Cytoplasm:
the cellular substance outside the nucleus in which the cell's organelles are suspended.
Dementia:
severe impairment of mental functioning.
DNA:
the substance of heredity; a large molecule that carries the genetic information that cells need to replicate and to produce proteins.
DNA repair genes:
certain genes that are part of a DNA repair pathway; when altered, they permit mutations to pile up throughout the DNA.
DNA sequencing:
determining the exact order of the base pairs in a segment of DNA.
Dominant allele:
a gene that is expressed, regardless of whether its counterpart allele on the other chromosome is dominant or recessive. Autosomal dominant disorders are produced by a single mutated dominant allele, even though its corresponding allele is normal. (See Recessive allele.)
Enzyme:
a protein that facilitates a specific chemical reaction.
Familial adenomatous polyposis:
an inherited condition in which hundreds of potentially cancerous polyps develop in the colon and rectum.
Familial cancer:
cancer, or a predisposition toward cancer, that runs in families.
Functional gene tests:
biochemical assays for a specific protein, which indicates that a specific gene is not merely present but active.
Gene:
a unit of inheritance; a working subunit of DNA. Each of the body's 50,000 to 100,000 genes contains the code for a specific product, typically, a protein such as an enzyme.
Gene deletion:
the total loss or absence of a gene.
Gene expression:
the process by which a gene's coded information is translated into the structures present and operating in the cell (either proteins or RNAs).
Gene markers:
landmarks for a target gene, either detectable traits that are inherited along with the gene, or distinctive segments of DNA.
Gene mapping:
determining the relative positions of genes on a chromosome and the distance between them.
Gene testing:
examining a sample of blood or other body fluid or tissue for biochemical, chromosomal, or genetic markers that indicate the presence or absence of genetic disease.
Gene therapy:
treating disease by replacing, manipulating, or supplementing nonfunctional genes.
Genetic linkage maps:
DNA maps that assign relative chromosomal locations to genetic landmarks裡ither genes for known traits or distinctive sequences of DNA - on the basis of how frequently they are inherited together. (See Physical maps.)
Genetics:
the scientific study of heredity: how particular qualities or traits are transmitted from parents to offspring.
Genome:
all the genetic material in the chromosomes of a particular organism.
Genome maps:
charts that indicate the ordered arrangement of the genes or other DNA markers within the chromosomes.
Genotype:
the actual genes carried by an individual (as distinct from phenotype裻hat is, the physical characteristics into which genes are translated).
Germ cells:
the reproductive cells of the body, either egg or sperm cells.
Germline mutation:
(See Hereditary mutation.)
Hereditary mutation:
a gene change in the body's reproductive cells (egg or sperm) that becomes incorporated in the DNA of every cell in the body; also called germline mutation. (See Acquired mutations.)
Human genome:
the full collection of genes needed to produce a human being.
Human Genome Project:
an international research effort (led in the United States by the National Institutes of Health and the Department of Energy) aimed at identifying and ordering every base in the human genome.
Huntington's disease:
an adult-onset disease characterized by progressive mental and physical deterioration; it is caused by an inherited dominant gene mutation.
Imprinting:
a biochemical phenomenon that determines, for certain genes, which one of the pair of alleles, the mother's or the father's, will be active in that individual.
Inborn errors of metabolism:
inherited diseases resulting from alterations in genes that code for enzymes.
Leukemia:
cancer that begins in developing blood cells in the bone marrow.
Li-Fraumeni syndrome:
a family predisposition to multiple cancers, caused by a mutation in the p53 tumor-suppressor gene.
Linkage analysis:
a gene-hunting technique that traces patterns of heredity in large, high-risk families, in an attempt to locate a disease-causing gene mutation by identifying traits that are co-inherited with it.
Melanoma:
a cancer that begins in skin cells called melanocytes and spreads to internal organs.
Molecule:
a group of atoms arranged to interact in a particular way; one molecule of any substance is the smallest physical unit of that particular substance.
Mutation:
a change in the number, arrangement, or molecular sequence of a gene.
Newborn screening:
examining blood samples from a newborn infant to detect disease-related abnormalities or deficiencies in gene products.
Nucleotide:
A subunit of DNA or RNA, consisting of one chemical base plus a phosphate molecule and a sugar molecule.
Nucleus:
the cell structure that houses the chromosomes.
Oncogenes:
genes that normally play a role in the growth of cells but, when overexpressed or mutated, can foster the growth of cancer.
p53:
(See Tumor-suppressor genes.)
Penetrance:
a term indicating the likelihood that a given gene will actually result in disease.
Phenylketonuria (PKU):
an inborn error of metabolism caused by the lack of an enzyme, resulting in abnormally high levels of the amino acid phenylalanine; untreated, PKU can lead to severe, progressive mental retardation.
Physical maps:
DNA maps showing the location of identifiable landmarks, either genes or distinctive short sequences of DNA. The lowest resolution physical map shows the banding pattern on the 24 different chromosomes; the highest resolution map depicts the complete nucleotide sequence of the chromosomes. (See Contig maps.)
Precancerous polyps:
growths in the colon that often become cancerous.
Predictive gene tests:
tests to identify gene abnormalities that may make a person susceptible to certain diseases or disorders.
Prenatal diagnosis:
examining fetal cells taken from the amniotic fluid, the primitive placenta (chorion), or the umbilical cord for biochemical, chromosomal, or gene alterations.
Probe:
a specific sequence of single-stranded DNA, typically labeled with a radioactive atom, which is designed to bind to, and thereby single out, a particular segment of DNA.
Proofreader genes:
(See DNA repair genes.)
Prophylactic surgery:
surgery to remove tissue that is in danger of becoming cancerous, before cancer has the chance to develop. Surgery to remove the breasts of women at high risk of developing breast cancer is known as prophylactic mastectomy.
Protein:
a large, complex molecule composed of amino acids. The sequence of the amino acids補nd thus the function of the protein裪s determined by the sequence of the base pairs in the gene that encodes it. Proteins are essential to the structure, function, and regulation of the body. Examples are hormones, enzymes, and antibodies.
Protein product:
the protein molecule assembled under the direction of a gene.
Recessive allele:
a gene that is expressed only when its counterpart allele on the matching chromosome is also recessive (not dominant). Autosomal recessive disorders develop in persons who receive two copies of the mutant gene, one from each parent who is a carrier. (See Dominant allele.)
Recombination:
(See Crossing over.)
Renal cell cancer:
a type of kidney cancer.
Reproductive cells:
egg and sperm cells. Each mature reproductive cell carries a single set of 23 chromosomes.
Restriction enzymes:
enzymes that can cut strands of DNA at specific base sequences.
Retinoblastoma:
an eye cancer caused by the loss of a pair of tumor-suppressor genes; the inherited form typically appears in childhood, since one gene is missing from the time of birth.
RNA:
a chemical similar to DNA. The several classes of RNA molecules play important roles in protein synthesis and other cell activities.
Sarcoma:
a type of cancer that starts in bone or muscle.
Screening:
looking for evidence of a particular disease such as cancer in persons with no symptoms of disease.
Sex chromosomes:
the chromosomes that determine the sex of an organism. Human females have two X chromosomes; males have one X and one Y.
Sickle-cell anemia:
an inherited, potentially lethal disease in which a defect in hemoglobin, the oxygen-carrying pigment in the blood, causes distortion (sickling) and loss of red blood cells, producing damage to organs throughout the body.
Somatic cells:
all body cells except the reproductive cells.
Somatic mutations:
(See Acquired mutations.)
Tay-Sachs disease:
an inherited disease of infancy characterized by profound mental retardation and early death; it is caused by a recessive gene mutation.
Transcription:
the process of copying information from DNA into new strands of messenger RNA (mRNA). The mRNA then carries this information to the cytoplasm, where it serves as the blueprint for the manufacture of a specific protein.
Translation:
the process of turning instructions from mRNA, base by base, into chains of amino acids that then fold into proteins. This process takes place in the cytoplasm, on structures called ribosomes.
Tumor-suppressor genes:
genes that normally restrain cell growth but, when missing or inactivated by mutation, allow cells to grow uncontrolled.
Wilms' tumor:
a kidney cancer (tumor) that occurs in children, usually before age 5.
X chromosome:
a sex chromosome; normal females carry two X chromosomes.
Y chromosome:
a sex chromosome; normal males carry one Y and one X chromosome. 

摘录:

 

遗传学

Understanding Gene Testing

 

Chromosomes:

structures found in the nucleus of a cell, which contain the genes. Chromosomes come in pairs, and a normal human cell contains 46 chromosomes, 22 pairs of autosomes and two sex chromosomes.

Clone:

a group of identical genes, cells, or organisms derived from a single ancestor.

Cytoplasm:

the cellular substance outside the nucleus in which the cell's organelles are suspended.

Dementia:

severe impairment of mental functioning.

Enzyme:

a protein that facilitates a specific chemical reaction.

Gene therapy:

treating disease by replacing, manipulating, or supplementing nonfunctional genes.

Genetics:

the scientific study of heredity: how particular qualities or traits are transmitted from parents to offspring.

Genome:

all the genetic material in the chromosomes of a particular organism.

Germ cells:

the reproductive cells of the body, either egg or sperm cells.

Hereditary mutation:

a gene change in the body's reproductive cells (egg or sperm) that becomes incorporated in the DNA of every cell in the body; also called germline mutation. (See Acquired mutations.)

Prenatal diagnosis:

examining fetal cells taken from the amniotic fluid, the primitive placenta (chorion), or the umbilical cord for biochemical, chromosomal, or gene alterations.

Reproductive cells:

egg and sperm cells. Each mature reproductive cell carries a single set of 23 chromosomes.

RNA:

a chemical similar to DNA. The several classes of RNA molecules play important roles in protein synthesis and other cell activities.

Sex chromosomes:

the chromosomes that determine the sex of an organism. Human females have two X chromosomes; males have one X and one Y.

Somatic cells:

all body cells except the reproductive cells.

Transcription:

the process of copying information from DNA into new strands of messenger RNA (mRNA). The mRNA then carries this information to the cytoplasm, where it serves as the blueprint for the manufacture of a specific protein.

X chromosome:

a sex chromosome; normal females carry two X chromosomes.

Y chromosome:

a sex chromosome; normal males carry one Y and one X chromosome.

 



 
ConquerGmat @ 2007-04-17 23:00

 

Passage 4

The majority of successful senior managers do not

closely follow the classical rational model of first clari-

fying goals, assessing the problem, formulating options,

estimating likelihoods of success, making a decision,

(5) and only then taking action to implement the decision.

Rather, in their day-by-day tactical maneuvers, these

senior executives rely on what is vaguely termed “intu-

ition” to mangage a network of interrelated problems

that require them to deal with ambiguity, inconsistency,

(10) novelty, and surprise; and to integrate action into the

process to thinking.

Generations of writers on management have recog-

nized that some practicing managers rely heavily on

intuition. In general, however, such writers display a

(15) poor grasp of what intuition is. Some see it as the oppo-

site of rationality: others view it as an excuse for ca-

priciousness.

Isenberg’s recent research on the cognitive processes

of senior managers reveals that managers’ intuition is

(20) neither of these. Rather, senior managers use intuition

in at least five distinct ways. First, they intuitively sense

when a problem exists. Second, managers rely on intu-

ition to perform well-learned behavior patterns rapidly.

This intuition is not arbitrary or irrational, but is based

(25) on years of painstaking practice and hands-on experi-

ence that build skills. A third function of intuition is to

synthesize isolated bits of data and practice into an inte-

grated picture, often in an “Aha!” experience. Fourth,

some managers use intuition as a check on the results

(30) of more rational analysis. Most senior executives are

familiar with the formal decision analysis models and

tools, and those who use such systematic methods for

reaching decisions are occasionally leery of solutions

suggested by these methods which run counter to their

(35) sense of the correct course of action. Finally, managers

can use intuition to bypass in-depth analysis and move

rapidly to engender a plausible solution. Used in this

way, intuition is an almost instantaneous cognitive

process in which a manager recognizes familiar patterns.

(40) One of the implications of the intuitive style of execu-

tive management is that “thinking” is inseparable from

acting. Since managers often “know” what is right

before they can analyze and explain it, they frequently

act first and explain later. Analysis is inextricably tied

(45) to action in thinking/acting cycles, in which managers

develop thoughts about their companies and organiza-

tions not by analyzing a problematic situation and then

acting, but by acting and analyzing in close concert.

Given the great uncertainty of many of the manage-

(50) ment issues that they face, senior managers often insti-

gate a course of action simply to learn more about an

issue. They then use the results of the action to develop

a more complete understanding of the issue. One impli-

cation of thinking/acting cycles is that action is often

(55) part of defining the problem, not just of implementing

the solution.

 

19. According to the passage, senior managers use intuition in all of the following ways EXCEPT to

(A)   speed up of the creation of a solution to a problem

(B)   identify a problem

(C)  bring together disparate facts

(D)  stipulate clear goalsD

(E)   evaluate possible solutions to a problem

D

 

20. The passage suggests which of the following about the “writers on management” mentioned in line 12?

(A)   They have criticized managers for not following the classical rational model of decision analysis.

(B)   They have not based their analyses on a sufficiently large sample of actual managers.

(C)  They have relied in drawing their conclusions on what managers say rather than on what managers do.

(D)  They have misunderstood how managers use intuition in making business decisions.D

(E)   They have not acknowledged the role of intuition in managerial practice.

D

 

21. Which of the following best exemplifies “an ‘Aha!’ experience” (line 28) as it is presented in the passage?

(A)   A manager risks taking an action whose outcome is unpredictable to discover whether the action changes the problem at hand.

(B)   A manager performs well-learned and familiar behavior patterns in creative and uncharacteristic ways to solve a problem.

(C)  A manager suddenly connects seemingly unrelated facts and experiences to create a pattern relevant to the problem at hand.

(D)  A manager rapidly identifies the methodology used to compile data yielded by systematic analysis.C

(E)   A manager swiftly decides which of several sets of tactics to implement in order to deal with the contingencies suggested by a problem.

C

 

22. According to the passage, the classical model of decision analysis includes all of the following EXCEPT

(A)   evaluation of a problem

(B)   creation of possible solutions to a problem

(C)  establishment of clear goals to be reached by the decision

(D)  action undertaken in order to discover more information about a problemD

(E)   comparison of the probable effects of different solutions to a problem

D

 

23. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following would most probably be one major difference in behavior between Manager X, who uses intuition to reach decisions, and Manager Y, who uses only formal decision analysis?

(A)   Manager X analyzes first and then acts; Manager Y does not.

(B)   Manager X checks possible solutions to a problem by systematic analysis; Manager Y does not

(C)  Manager X takes action in order to arrive at the solution to a problem; Manager Y does not.

(D)  Manager Y draws on years of hands-on experience in creating a solution to a problem; Manager X does not.C

(E)   Manger Y depends on day-to-day tactical maneuvering; manager X does not.

C

 

24. The passage provides support for which of the following statements?

(A)   Managers who rely on intuition are more successful than those who rely on formal decision analysis.

(B)   Managers cannot justify their intuitive decisions.

(C)  Managers’ intuition works contrary to their rational and analytical skills

(D)  Logical analysis of a problem increases the number of possible solutions.E

(E)   Intuition enables managers to employ their practical experience more efficiently.

E

19.

D is the best answer. The question requires you to recognize which of the choices is NOT

mentioned in the passage as a way in which senior managers use intuition.

The passage does not mention stipulating goals.

20.

D is the best answer. The author asserts that the writers in question “display a poor grasp of what

intuition is” (lines 21-22). The next paragraph presents a view that, according to the author of the

passage, characterizes intuition more accurately than the writers on management do. Isenberg’s

research is specifically described as showing the ways in which managers use intuition (lines

28-30). Therefore, what Isenberg correctly comprehends, and the writers in question

misunderstand, is how managers use intuition, as this choice states.

21.

C is the best answer. An “Aha! Experience” is said in lines 37-41 to result from the synthesizing of

“isolated bits of data and practice into an integrated picture.” This choice is the best example of

this kind of process. The connecting of seemingly unrelated facts and experiences mentioned in

the answer choice is equivalent to synthesizing “isolated bits of data and practice,” and the pattern

referred to is comparable to an “integrated picture.”

22.

D is the best answer. The question requires you to recognize which of the choices is NOT

mentioned in the passage as a component of the classical model of decision analysis. Only this

choice, “action undertaken in order to discover more information about a problem,” does not

appear in the passage.

23.

C is the best answer. The question requires you to compare behavior based on intuition with

behavior based on formal decision analysis. This choice specifies that the manager who uses

intuition incorporates action into the decision-making process, but the manager who uses formal

analysis does not. This distinction is made in several places in the passage. Lines 6-7 emphasize

that decision-making and action-taking are separate steps in formal decision analysis: “making a

decision, and only then taking action.” On the other hand, those who use intuition “integrate action

into the process of thinking” (lines 15-16).Again, the author mentions that in the intuitive style of

management, “ ‘thinking’ is inseparable from acting” (lines 60-61), and “action is often part of

defining the problem” (lines 80-81).

24.

E is the best answer. The question requires you to identify a statement that can be inferred from

information in the passage but is not explicitly stated. The author asserts that intuitive managers

can “move rapidly to engender a plausible solution” (lines 53-54) and that their intuition is based

on “experience that builds skill” (line 37). This implies that the combination of skill and rapidity

enables mangers to employ their practical experience more efficiently, as this choice states.

 

Passage 5

Nearly a century ago, biologists found that if they

separated an invertebrate animal embryo into two parts

at an early stage of its life, it would survive and develop

as two normal embryos. This led them to believe that the

(5) cells in the early embryo are undetermined in the sense

that each cell has the potential to develop in a variety of

different ways. Later biologists found that the situation

was not so simple. It matters in which plane the embryo

is cut. If it is cut in a plane different from the one used

(10) by the early investigators, it will not form two whole

embryos.

A debate arose over what exactly was happening.

Which embryo cells are determined, just when do they-

become irreversibly committed to their fates, and what

(15) are the “morphogenetic determinants” that tell a cell

what to become? But the debate could not be resolved

because no one was able to ask the crucial questions

in a form in which they could be pursued productively.

Recent discoveries in molecular biology, however, have

(20) opened up prospects for a resolution of the debate.

Now investigators think they know at least some of the

molecules that act as morphogenetic determinants in

early development. They have been able o show that,

in a sense, cell determination begins even before an egg

(25) is fertilized.

Studying sea urchins, biologist Paul Gross found

that an unfertilized egg contains substances that func-

tion as morphogenetic determinants. They are located

in the cytoplasm of the egg cell; i.e., in that part of the

(30) cell’s protoplasm that lies outside of the nucleus. In the

unfertilized egg, the substances are inactive and are not

distributed homogeneously. When the egg is fertilized,

the substances become active and, presumably, govern

the behavior of the genes they interact with. Since the

(35) substances are unevenly distributed in the egg, when the

fertilized egg divides, the resulting cells are different

from the start and so can be qualitatively different in

their own gene activity.

The substances that Gross studied are maternal

(40) messenger RNA’s --products of certain of the maternal

genes. He and other biologists studying a wide variety

of organisms have found that these particular RNA’s

direct, in large part, the synthesis of histones, a class

of proteins that bind to DNA. Once synthesized, the

(45) histones move into the cell nucleus, where section of

DNA wrap around them to form a structure that resem-

bles beads, or knots, on a string. The beads are DNA

segments wrapped around the histones; the string is the

intervening DNA. And it is the structure of these beaded

(50) DNA strings that guides the fate of the cells in which

they are located.

 

这些gross所研究的物质是mm rna’s—一些母系基因的产品,

他和其他生物学家广泛研究了不同的有机体发现这些特殊的

Rna’s在很大程度上指导了histones的合成,这些histones是一类

连接dna的蛋白质.

一旦合成,这些histones移动到细胞核里面去,在细胞核里面dna包围

histones来形成一个类似珠//绳子的结构

这个beads是一段dnahistones包围着,string是插入的dna.

是这些结构决定了细胞的命运

 

 

morphogenetic determinants实际上就是maternal messenger RNA’s

然后又合成了histones, histonesdna组成了一个结构决定细胞的命运

 

25. It can be inferred from the passage that the morphogenetic determinants present in the early embryo are

(A)   located in the nucleus of the embryo cells

(B)   evenly distributed unless the embryo is not developing normally

(C)  inactive until the embryo cells become irreversibly committed to their final function

(D)  identical to those that were already present in the unfertilized eggE

(E)   present in larger quantities than is necessary for the development of a single individual

D11E

 

26. The main topic of the passage is

(A)   the early development of embryos of lower marine organisms

(B)   the main contribution of modern embryology to molecular biology

(C)  the role of molecular biology in disproving older theories of embryonic development

(D)  cell determination as an issue in the study of embryonic developmentD

(E)   scientific dogma as a factor in the recent debate over the value of molecular biology

CD再没有完全看懂文章的情况作的

 

27. According to the passage, when biologists believed that the cells in the early embryo were undetermined, they made which of the following mistakes?

(A)   They did not attempt to replicate the original experiment of separating an embryo into two parts.

(B)   They did not realize that there was a connection between the issue of cell determination and the outcome of the separation experiment.

(C)  They assumed that the results of experiments on embryos did not depend on the particular animal species used for such experiments.

(D)  They assumed that it was crucial to perform the separation experiment at an early stage in the embryo’s life. E

(E)   They assumed that different ways of separating an embryo into two parts would be equivalent as far as the fate of the two parts was concerned.

E

 

28. It can be inferred from the passage that the initial production of histones after an egg is fertilized takes place

(A)   in the cytoplasm

(B)   in the maternal genes

(C)  throughout the protoplasm

(D)  in the beaded portions of the DNA stringsA

(E)   in certain sections of the cell nucleus

EA定位再29

 

29. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following is dependent on the fertilization of an egg?

(A)   Copying of maternal genes to produce maternal messenger RNA’s

(B)   Sythesis of proteins called histones

(C)  Division of a cell into its nucleus and the cytoplasm

(D)  Determination of the egg cell’s potential for divisionB

(E)   Generation of all of a cell’s morphogenetic determinants

B11

 

30. According to the passage, the morphogenetic determinants present in the unfertilized egg cell are which of the following?

(A)   Proteins bound to the nucleus

(B)   Histones

(C)  Maternal messenger RNA’s

(D)  CytoplasmC

(E)   Nonbeaded intervening DNA

C

 

 

25.

E is the best answer.

The second and third paragraphs of the passage indicate that morphogenetic determinants are

substances in the embryo that are activated after the egg has been fertilized and that “tell a cell

what to become” (lines 21-23). If, as the author asserts in the first paragraph, biologists have

succeeded in dividing an embryo into two parts, each of which survives and develops into a

normal embryo, it can be concluded that the quantity of morphogenetic determinants in the early

embryo is greater than that required for the development of a single individual.

26.

D is the best answer. In identifying the main topic of the passage, you must consider the passage

as a whole. In the first paragraph, the author provides a historical context for the debate described

in the second paragraph, concerning when and how the determination of embryo cells takes place.

The third and forth paragraphs provide a specific example of the “Recent discoveries in molecular

biology” (lines 28-29) that may lead to the resolution of that debate.

27.

E is the best answer.

According to the author, early investigators arrived at the conclusion that the cells of the embryo

are undetermined because they “found that if they separated an invertebrate animal embryo into

two parts at an early stage of its life, it would survive and develop as two normal embryos” (lines

1-6). However, later biologists discovered that when an embryo was cut in places different from

the one used by the early investigators, it did not form two whole embryos. Because the earlier

biologists apparently arrived at their conclusion without attempting to cut an embryo in different

planes, it would appear that they assumed, erroneously, that different ways of separating the

embryos would not affect the fate of the two embryo parts.

28.

A is the best answer. In the third paragraph, the author asserts that substances that function as

morphogenetic determinants are located in the cytoplasm of the cell and become active after the

cell is fertilized. In the fourth paragraph we learn that these substances are “maternal messenger

RNA’s” and that they “direct, in large part, the synthesis of histones,” which, after being

synthesized, “move into the cell nucleus” (lines 59-68). Thus, it can be inferred that after the egg

is fertilized, the initial production of histones occurs in the cytoplasm.

29.

B is the best answer. Lines 45-51 indicate that substances that function as morphogenetic

determinants are inactive in the unfertilized egg and that when the egg is fertilized, they “become

active and, presumably, govern the behavior of the genes they interact with.” In the fourth

paragraph, we learn that these substances exert their control over the fate of the cell by directing

“the synthesis of histones.” Because these histones cannot be synthesized until the substances that

function as morphogenetic determinants become active, and because these substances do not

become active until the egg is fertilized, it can be inferred that the synthesis of the histones is

dependent on the fertilization of the egg.

30.

C is the best answer. Lines 38-41 in from us that in his study of sea urchins, Gross “found that an

unfertilized egg contains substances that function as morphogetic determinants.” Lines 58-60

assert that the “substances that Gross studied are maternal messenger RNA’s,” and in lines 62-63

we learn that these maternal messenger RNA’s can be found in “ a wide variety of organisms.”

 

Passage 6

In the two decades between 1910 and 1930, over

ten percent to the Black population of the United States

left the South, where the preponderance of the Black

population had been located, and migrated to northern

(5) states, with the largest number moving, it is claimed,

between 1916 and 1918. It has been frequently assumed,

but not proved, that the majority of the migrants in

what has come to be called the Great Migration came

from rural areas and were motivated by two concurrent

(10) factors: the collapse of the cotton industry following

the boll weevil infestation, which began in 1898, and

increased demand in the North for labor following

the cessation of European immigration caused by the

outbreak of the First World War in 1914. This assump-

(15) tion has led to the conclusion that the migrants’ subse-

quent lack of economic mobility in the North is tied to

rural background, a background that implies unfamil-

iarity with urban living and a lack of industrial skills.

But the question of who actually left the South has

(20) never been rigorously investigated. Although numerous

investigations document an exodus from rural southern

areas to southern cities prior to the Great Migration.

no one has considered whether the same migrants then

moved on to northern cities. In 1910 over 600,000

(25) Black workers, or ten percent of the Black work force,

reported themselves to be engaged in “manufacturing

and mechanical pursuits,” the federal census category

roughly encompassing the entire industrial sector. The

Great Migration could easily have been made up entirely

(30) of this group and their families. It is perhaps surprising

to argue that an employed population could be enticed

to move, but an explanation lies in the labor conditions

then prevalent in the South.

About thirty-five percent of the urban Black popu-

(35) lation in the South was engaged in skilled trades. Some

were from the old artisan class of slavery-blacksmiths.

masons, carpenters-which had had a monopoly of

certain trades, but they were gradually being pushed

out by competition, mechanization, and obsolescence,

(40) The remaining sixty-five percent, more recently urban-

ized, worked in newly developed industries---tobacco.

lumber, coal and iron manufacture, and railroads.

Wages in the South, however, were low, and Black

workers were aware, through labor recruiters and the

(45)Black press, that they could earn more even as unskilled

workers in the North than they could as artisans in the

South. After the boll weevil infestation, urban Black

workers faced competition from the continuing influx

of both Black and White rural workers, who were driven

(50) to undercut the wages formerly paid for industrial jobs.

Thus, a move north would be seen as advantageous

to a group that was already urbanized and steadily

employed, and the easy conclusion tying their subse-

quent economic problems in the North to their rural

background comes into question.

 

31. The author indicates explicitly that which of the following records has been a source of information in her

investigation?

(A)   United States Immigration Service reports from 1914 to 1930

(B)   Payrolls of southern manufacturing firms between 1910 and 1930

(C)  The volume of cotton exports between 1898 and 1910

(D)  The federal census of 1910D

(E)   Advertisements of labor recruiters appearing in southern newspapers after 1910

D

 

32. In the passage, the author anticipates which of the following as a possible objection to her argument?

(A)   It is uncertain how many people actually migrated during the Great Migration.

(B)   The eventual economic status of the Great Migration migrants has not been adequately traced.

(C)  It is not likely that people with steady jobs would have reason to move to another area of the country.

(D)  It is not true that the term “manufacturing and mechanical pursuits” actually encompasses the entire industrial sector. C

(E)   Of the Black workers living in southern cities, only those in a small number of trades were threatened by obsolescence.

C 30

 

33. According to the passage, which of the following is true of wages in southern cities in 1910?

(A)   They were being pushed lower as a result of increased competition.

(B)   They had begun t to rise so that southern industry could attract rural workers.

(C)  They had increased for skilled workers but decreased for unskilled workers.

(D)  They had increased in large southern cities but decreased in small southern cities. A

(E)   They had increased in newly developed industries but decreased in the older trades.

A

 

34. The author cites each of the following as possible influences in a Black worker’s decision to migrate north in the Great Migration EXCEPT

(A)   wage levels in northern cities

(B)   labor recruiters

(C)  competition from rural workers

(D)  voting rights in northern statesD

(E)   the Black press

D

 

35. It can be inferred from the passage that the “easy conclusion” mentioned in line 53 is based on which of the following assumptions?

(A)   People who migrate from rural areas to large cities usually do so for economic reasons.

(B)   Most people who leave rural areas to take jobs in cities return to rural areas as soon as it is financially possible for them to do so.

(C)  People with rural backgrounds are less likely to succeed economically in cities than are those with urban backgrounds.

(D)  Most people who were once skilled workers are not willing to work as unskilled workers. C

(E)   People who migrate from their birthplaces to other regions of country seldom undertake a second migration.

C

 

36. The primary purpose of the passage is to

(A)   support an alternative to an accepted methodology

(B)   present evidence that resolves a contradiction

(C)  introduce a recently discovered source of information

(D)  challenge a widely accepted explanationD

(E)  argue that a discarded theory deserves new attention

D

31.

D is the best answer.

In lines 35-41, the author states that ten percent of the Black workers in the South were employed

in “manufacturing and mechanical pursuits” and then identifies “manufacturing and mechanical

pursuits” as the general federal census category for industrial occupations in 1910. Thus, she

indicates that she used the federal census as a source of information.

32.

C is the best answer. To answer this question, you must first identify the author’s argument. The

author argues that it is possible that Black migrants to the North were living and working in urban

areas of the South rather in rural areas, as researchers had previously assumed. In lines 44-48, the

author states that it may be “surprising” that an employed population would relocate. Thus, the

author anticipates an objection to her argument on the grounds that Black urban workers in the

South would have been unlikely to leave an economically secure existence. She meets that

objection by stating that “an explanation lies in the labor conditions then prevalent in the South”

(lines 46-48), and discusses the low wages that may have motivated Black workers to migrate

north for higher pay.

33.

A is the best answer. The author discusses wages in southern cities in the third paragraph. Lines

68-73 state that an increase in the number of rural workers who migrated to southern cities after

the collapse of the cotton industry led to increased competition for jobs and resulted in wages

being pushed lower.

34.

D is the best answer. This question asks you to identify the possible influences that motivated

Black workers in their decision to migrate north, and then to recognize which of the choices is

NOT mentioned as an influence on Black workers.

This is the only option not mentioned in the passage as an influence that may have motivated

southern Black workers to move north.

35.

C is the best answer. To answer this question, you must first identify the “easy conclusion”

mentioned in lines 77-79, which ties Black migrants’ “subsequent economic problems in the North

to their rural background.” This linkage of rural background to economic difficulty after migration

to the North is first mentioned in lines 20-26. Here, the author points out that researchers have

assumed that Black migrants encountered economic difficulties in northern cities because they

were from rural rather than urban backgrounds, and that rural backgrounds imply “unfamiliarity

with urban living and a lack of industrial skills.” This choice provides an assumption about the

relationship between rural backgrounds and economic difficulty that underlies this conclusion. It

states that people with rural backgrounds are more likely to have economic difficulty in urban

areas than are people with urban backgrounds.

36.

D is the best answer. The first paragraph describes a common assumption about the Great

Migration, that the majority of migrants came from rural areas. It also restates the conclusion that

is based on this assumption, that the subsequent economic difficulties of Black migrants in the

North were a result of their unfamiliarity with urban life. In the second paragraph, the author states

that the “question of who actually left the South” (lines 27-28) has never been adequately

researched. She goes on to argue that Black migrants may actually have been from urban areas

rather than rural areas, and thus that their subsequent economic problems in northern cities were

not caused by their rural background. In making this argument, the author is challenging the

“widely accepted explanation” presented in the first paragraph.

 

Passage 7

In 1896 a Georgia couple suing for damages in the

accidental death of their two year old was told that since

the child had made no real economic contribution to the

family, there was no liability for damages. In contrast,

(5) less than a century later, in 1979, the parents of a three

year old sued in New York for accidental-death damages

and won an award of 0,000.

The transformation in social values implicit in juxta-

posing these two incidents is the subject of Viviana

(10) Zelizer’s excellent book, Pricing the Priceless Child.

During the nineteenth century, she argues, the concept

of the “useful” child who contributed to the family

economy gave way gradually to the present-day notion

of the “useless” child who, though producing no income

(15) for, and indeed extremely costly to, its parents, is yet

considered emotionally “priceless.” Well established

among segments of the middle and upper classes by the

mid-1800’s, this new view of childhood spread through-

out society in the iate-nineteenth and early-twentieth

(20) centuries as reformers introduced child-labor regulations

and compulsory education laws predicated in part on the

assumption that a child’s emotional value made child

labor taboo.

For Zelizer the origins of this transformation were

(25) many and complex. The gradual erosion of children’s

productive value in a maturing industrial economy,

the decline in birth and death rates, especially in child

mortality, and the development of the companionate

family (a family in which members were united by

(30) explicit bonds of love rather than duty) were all factors

critical in changing the assessment of children’s worth.

Yet “expulsion of children from the ‘cash nexus,’...

although clearly shaped by profound changes in the

economic, occupational, and family structures,” Zelizer

(35) maintains. “was also part of a cultural process ‘of sacral-

ization’ of children’s lives. ” Protecting children from the

crass business world became enormously important for

late-nineteenth-century middle-class Americans, she

suggests; this sacralization was a way of resisting what

(40) they perceived as the relentless corruption of human

values by the marketplace.

In stressing the cultural determinants of a child’s

worth. Zelizer takes issue with practitioners of the new

“sociological economics,” who have analyzed such tradi-

(45) tionally sociological topics as crime, marriage, educa-

tion, and health solely in terms of their economic deter-

minants. Allowing only a small role for cultural forces

in the form of individual “preferences,” these sociologists

tend to view all human behavior as directed primarily by

(50) the principle of maximizing economic gain. Zelizer is

highly critical of this approach, and emphasizes instead

the opposite phenomenon: the power of social values to

transform price. As children became more valuable in

emotional terms, she argues, their “exchange” or “ sur-

(55) render” value on the market, that is, the conversion of

their intangible worth into cash terms, became much

greater.

 

37. It can be inferred from the passage that accidental-death damage awards in America during the nineteenth

century tended to be based principally on the

(A)   earnings of the person at time of death

(B)   wealth of the party causing the death

(C)  degree of culpability of the party causing the death

(D)  amount of money that had been spent on the person killedA

(E)   amount of suffering endured by the family of the person killed

 

A

 

38. It can be inferred from the passage that in the early 1800’s children were generally regarded by their families as individuals who

(A)   needed enormous amounts of security and affection

(B)   required constant supervision while working

(C)  were important to the economic well-being of a family

(D)  were unsuited to spending long hours in schoolC

(E)   were financial burdens assumed for the good of society

C如何定位?

 

39. Which of the following alternative explanations of the change in the cash value of children would be most likely to be put forward by sociological economists as they are described in the passage?

(A)   The cash value of children rose during the nineteenth century because parents began to increase their emotional investment in the upbringing of their children.

(B)   The cash value of children rose during the nineteenth century because their expected earnings over the course of a lifetime increased greatly.

(C)  The cash value of children rose during the nineteenth century because the spread of humanitarian ideals resulted in a wholesale reappraisal of the worth of an individual

(D)  The cash value of children rose during the nineteenth century because compulsory education laws reduced the supply, and thus raised the costs, of available child labor. B

(E)   The cash value of children rose during the nineteenth century because of changes in the way negligence law assessed damages in accidental-death cases.

AB粗心,看到a选成了b

 

40. The primary purpose of the passage is to

(A)   review the literature in a new academic subfield

(B)   present the central thesis of a recent book

(C)  contrast two approaches to analyzing historical change

(D)  refute a traditional explanation of a social phenomenonB

(E)   encourage further work on a neglected historical topic

B

 

41. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following statements was true of American families over the course of the nineteenth century?

(A)   The average size of families grew considerably

(B)   The percentage of families involved in industrial work declined dramatically.

(C)  Family members became more emotionally bonded to one another.

(D)  Family members spent an increasing amount of time working with each other. C

(E)   Family members became more economically dependent on each other.

C

 

42. Zelizer refers to all of the following as important influences in changing the assessment of children’s worth EXCEPT changes in

(A)   the mortality rate

(B)   the nature of industry

(C)  the nature of the family

(D)  attitudes toward reform movementsD

(E)   attitudes toward the marketplace

D

 

37.

A is the best answer. In the first paragraph, the author cites an accidental-death case from

nineteenth-century America in which the absence of economic contribution on the part of a

deceased child was ruled sufficient grounds to deny the awarding of damages to the child’s parents.

The author goes on to discuss how this case typified attitudes that persisted even into the twentieth

century. It can be inferred from this that in nineteenth-century America the chief consideration in

determining damages in an accidental-death case was the deceased person’s earnings.

There are no evidence in the passage to suggest that the factors in B, C, D and E were of primary

concern in determining accidental-death damages in nineteenth-century America.

38.

C is the best answer.

In the second paragraph, the author describes how during the nineteenth century the concept of the

“ ‘useful’ child who contributed to the family economy” (lines 23-24) gradually gave way to the

present-day notion of the economically “useless” but emotionally “priceless” child. This new view

of childhood was “well established among segments of the middle and upper classes by the

mid-1800’s” and “spread throughout society in the late-nineteenth and early-twentieth centuries”

(lines 31-38). Thus in the early 1800’s, prior to the shift in the valuation of children, families

valued the role children had to play in the family’s economic well-being.

A and E describe attitude more in accord with the present-day view of childhood. B and D address

issues that are not raised in the passage.

39.

B is the best answer.

According to the author, practitioners of the new “sociological economics” explain sociological

phenomena “solely in terms of their economic determinants” and “tend to view all human

behavior as directed primarily by the principle of maximizing economic gain’ (lines 85-98). This

choice provides just such an economic explanation for the nineteenth-century rise in the cash

value of children.

A paraphrases Zelizer’s own explanation, which is at odds with that of the sociological economists.

C uses social values and emotional factors to explain an even broader revaluation of individual

worth. D uses an economic argument to explain the change, but here the economic factors at work

are the result of a change. E provides a legal explanation for the change.

40.

B is the best answer.

In the first paragraph, the author contrasts two incidents that are said to exemplify the

transformation in social values that forms the subject of Zelizer’s book.

The second and third paragraphs consist of a brief history of that transformation, as Zelizer

presents it, and an account of the factors she considers important in bringing it about. In the last

paragraph, the author explains how Zelizer’s thesis differs from that of sociological economists.

Thus, the passage serves primarily to present the central thesis of Zelizer’s book.

A and E misrepresent the subject matter of the passage. D mispresents the author’s approach. C is

incorrect because although the passage does contrast two approaches, this contrast takes place

only in the final paragraph.

41.

C is the best answer.

In the third paragraph, the author cites Zelizer’s contention that the new view of childhood that

developed in nineteenth-century America was due in part to “the development of the

companionate family (a family in which members were united by explicit bonds of love rather

than duty)”(lines 54-58). From this it can be inferred that the emotional bonds between family

members became increasingly important during this period.

There are no information in the passage to support the other answer choices.

42.

D is the best answer.

Although reform movements are mentioned in lines 39-45, the passage does not discuss attitudes

or changes in attitudes toward those movements. This choice is therefore NOT among the

influences Zelizer is said to regard as important in changing the assessment of children’s worth.

A, B and C are mentioned in lines 48-58 as factors Zelizer regards as “critical in changing the

assessment of children’s worth”. E is mentioned in lines 70-80, which describe how the

“sacralization” of children’s lives represented “a way of resisting what they <middle-class

Americans> perceived as the relentless corruption of human values by the marketplace.”



 
ConquerGmat @ 2007-04-17 22:58

2007-04-17 语法 - 整理白勇chpt2 - 2.5h

第二章 句子结构

 

标点符号:

       逗号

              不能连接句子,除非有连词,一般形式是:

句子1, and句子2

       分号前后必须是完整的句子

 

副词then also therefore however不能代替连词

       Do A and then do B, and不能省

 

介词不能用作连词引导从句

介词后一般只能接疑问词引导的宾语从句,不可以接that引导宾语从句

       but that / except that / in that=because

 

The reason why … is that … 不可以用because

 

As 结构

       见白勇10

 

Believe用法

       Believe + that

       Believe sth to be

       Believe sth

       错误用法:believe sth sth / believe sth that

 

名词的否定形式

       Not A, but B

       Not A, but rather B比上面一个语气强烈

       A, rather than B

       A, not B

 

对于一些不是很难但是比较复杂,看起来很花费时间的句式采用背句式的方式来熟悉

 P18 T10

 

Allow to do

 

Hope习惯用法

       It is hoped that…it作形式主语

       It is hoped作为插入语,前后用逗号格开

Hopefully在口语中使用,书面语中不用这个

 

As an instance错误

For instance正确

 

连词that不能随意省略

同位语从句连词that和宾语从句连词that不能省略

 

Responsible正确用法

       Be responsible for sth

       Be responsible for doing sth

       Be responsible to sb

       Be responsible to do

 

It可以向后指代主语从句,不定式短语

       不能指代介词短语,前面整个句子

 

propose用法

       sth propose that不使用虚拟语气

       sb propose that使用虚拟语气

       propose sb to do不能使用被动语态

       propose doing sth

       propose sth

 

doubt用法

       肯定形式:

              doubt whether

              doubt that

       否定形式

              do not doubt that

              不能用whether

 

some …others

one… another

each…the other

 

each引导强调型独立主格

       句子+复数名词,each+介词短语/形容词短语/ing短语/ed短语

       885. Under the restructuring, the huge organization that operates the company’s basic businesses will be divided into five groups, each with its own executive.

 

consider???????

       consider不加to be / as

       consider sth sth

       consider sth. adj

 

 

 

 

问题:

If any 作插入成分,意思是如果说有的话



 
ConquerGmat @ 2007-04-17 22:57

2007-04-17 单词 - toefl第n+1遍 -  L3L4


 
ConquerGmat @ 2007-04-17 22:53

2007-04-17 数学 - 单词 - 1h


 
ConquerGmat @ 2007-04-17 03:11

17  
单词 数学 1
单词 toefl L3L4 2
单词 收录的单词 0.5
语法 整理白勇chpt2 2
语法 新东方教程L7 2
逻辑 新东方教程14 1.5
阅读 OG10 4-7 gre阅读2篇 3
作文 题库 1
作文 教程 1
阅读 课外阅读 0.5


 
ConquerGmat @ 2007-04-17 02:34

 

 1. Even though most universities retain the royalties from faculty members' inventions, the faculty members retain the royalties from books and articles they write. Therefore, faculty members should retain the royalties from the educational computer software they develop.
The conclusion above would be more reasonably drawn if which of the following were inserted into the argument as an additional
[Y1]  premise?
(A) Royalties from inventions are higher than royalties from educational software programs.
(B) Faculty members are more likely to produce educational software programs than inventions.
(C) Inventions bring more prestige to universities than do books and articles.
(D) In the experience of most universities, educational software programs are more marketable than are books and articles.
(E) In terms of the criteria used to award royalties, educational software programs are

more nearly comparable to books and articles than to inventions.
E

 

2. Increases in the level of high-density lipoprotein (HDL) in the human bloodstream lower bloodstream-cholesterol levels by increasing the body's capacity to rid itself of excess cholesterol. Levels of HDL in the bloodstream of some individuals are significantly increased by a program of regular exercise and weight reduction.
Which of the following can be correctly inferred from the statements above?
(A) Individuals who are underweight do not run any risk of developing high levels of cholesterol in the bloodstream.
(B) Individuals who do not exercise regularly have a high risk of developing high levels of cholesterol in the bloodstream late
[Y2]  in life.
(C) Exercise and weight reduction are the most effective methods of lowering bloodstream cholesterol levels in humans.
(D) A program of regular exercise and weight reduction lowers cholesterol levels in the bloodstream of some individuals.
(E) Only regular exercise is necessary to decrease cholesterol levels in the bloodstream of individuals of average weight.
D

 

3. When limitations were in effect on nuclear-arms testing, people tended to save more of their money, but when nuclear-arms testing increased, people tended to spend more of their money. The perceived threat of nuclear catastrophe, therefore, decreases the willingness of people to postpone consumption for the sake of saving money.
The argument above assumes that
(A) the perceived threat of nuclear catastrophe has increased over the years.
(B) most people supported the development of nuclear arms
(C) people's perception of the threat of nuclear catastrophe depends on the amount of nuclear-arms testing being done
(D) the people who saved the most money when nuclear-arms testing was limited were the ones who supported such limitations
(E) there are more consumer goods available when nuclear-arms testing increases

C

 

4. Which of the following best completes the passage below?
People buy prestige when they buy a premium product. They want to be associated with something special. Mass-marketing techniques and price-reduction strategies should not be used because _______.

(A) affluent purchasers currently represent a shrinking portion of the population of all purchasers
(B) continued sales depend directly on the maintenance of an aura of exclusivity
(C) purchasers of premium products are concerned with the quality as well as with the price of the products
(D) expansion of the market niche to include a broader spectrum of consumers will increase profits
(E) manufacturing a premium brand is not necessarily more costly than manufacturing a standard brand of the same product

B11

E选项看起来也是对的,但是文章是从消费者的角度来看的

Questions 8-9 are based on the following.
If there is an oil-supply disruption resulting in higher international oil prices, domestic oil prices in open-market countries such as the United States will rise as
well, whether such countries import all or none of their oil.
5. If the statement above concerning oil-supply disruptions is true, which of the following policies in an open-market nation is most likely to reduce the long-term economic impact on that nation of sharp and unexpected increases in international oil prices?
(A) Maintaining the quantity of oil imported at constant yearly levels
(B) Increasing the number of oil tankers in its fleet
(C) Suspending diplomatic relations with major oil-producing nations
(D) Decreasing oil consumption through conservation
(E) Decreasing domestic production of oil
B11D

Fleet油船的意思

国际油价上升=>国内油价上升

所以减少油的消耗就能减少对经济的冲击

先读文章再读问题

6. Which of the following conclusions is best supported by the statement above?
(A) Domestic producers of oil in open-market countries are excluded from the international oil market when there is a disruption in the international oil supply.
(B) International oil-supply disruptions have little, if any, effect on the price of domestic oil as long as an open-market country has domestic supplies capable of meeting domestic demand.
(C) The oil market in an open-market country is actually part of the international oil market, even if most of that country's domestic oil is usually sold to consumers within its borders.
(D) Open-market countries that export little or none of their oil can maintain stable domestic oil prices even when international oil prices rise sharply.
(E) If international oil prices rise, domestic distributors of oil in open-market countries will begin to import more oil than they export.

C

 

7. Red blood cells in which the malarial-fever parasite resides are eliminated from a person's body after 120 days. Because the parasite cannot travel to a new generation of red blood cells, any fever that develops in a person more than 120 days after that person has moved to a malaria-free region is not due to the malarial parasite.
Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the conclusion above?
(A) The fever caused by the malarial parasite may resemble the fever caused by flu viruses.
(B) The anopheles mosquito, which is the principal insect carrier of the malarial parasite, has been eradicated in many parts of the world.
(C) Many malarial symptoms other than the fever, which can be suppressed with antimalarial medication, can reappear within 120 days after the medication is discontinued.
(D) In some cases, the parasite that causes malarial fever travels to cells of the spleen, which are less frequently eliminated from a person's body than are red blood cells.
(E) In any region infested with malaria-carrying mosquitoes, there are individuals who appear to be immune to malaria.

CD没有认真读题


8. Fact 1: Television advertising is becoming less effective: the proportion of brand names promoted on television that viewers of the advertising can recall is slowly decreasing.
Fact 2: Television viewers recall commercials aired first or last in a cluster of consecutive commercials far better than they recall commercials aired somewhere in the middle.
Fact 2 would be most likely to contribute to an explanation of fact 1 if which of the following were also true?

(A) The average television viewer currently recalls fewer than half the brand names promoted in commercials he or she saw.
(B) The total time allotted to the average cluster of consecutive television commercials is decreasing.
(C) The average number of hours per day that people spend watching television is decreasing.
(D) The average number of clusters of consecutive commercials per hour of television is increasing.
(E) The average number of television commercials in a cluster of consecutive commercials is increasing.

E

 

9. The number of people diagnosed as having a certain intestinal disease has dropped significantly in a rural county this year, as compared to last year, Health officials attribute this decrease entirely to improved sanitary conditions at water-treatment plants, which made for cleaner water this year and thus reduced the incidence of the disease.
Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the health officials' explanation for the lower incidence of the disease?
(A) Many new water-treatment plants have been built in the last five years in the rural county.
(B) Bottled spring water has not been consumed in significantly different quantities by people diagnosed as having the intestinal disease, as compared to people who did not contract the disease.
(C) Because of a new diagnostic technique, many people who until this year would have been diagnosed as having the intestinal disease are now correctly diagnosed as suffering from intestinal ulcers.
(D) Because of medical advances this year, far fewer people who contract the intestinal disease will develop severe cases of the disease.
(E) The water in the rural county was brought up to the sanitary standards of the water in neighboring counties ten years ago.

C

 

10. Some who favor putting governmental enterprises into private hands suggest that conservation objectives would in general be better served if private environmental groups were put in charge of operating and financing the national park system, which is now run by the government.
Which of the following, assuming that it is a realistic possibility, argues most strongly against the suggestion above?
(A) Those seeking to abolish all restrictions on exploiting the natural resources of the parks might join the private environmental groups as members and eventually take over their leadership.
(B) Private environmental groups might not always agree on the best ways to achieve conservation objectives.
(C) If they wished to extend the park system, the private environmental groups might have to seek contributions from major donors and the general public.
(D) There might be competition among private environmental groups for control of certain park areas.
(E) Some endangered species, such as the California condor, might die out despite the best efforts of the private environmental groups, even if those groups are not hampered by insufficient resources.

A11要找到私人和政府的区别


11. A recent spate of launching and operating mishaps with television satellites led to a corresponding surge in claims against companies underwriting satellite insurance. As a result, insurance premiums shot up, making satellites more expensive to launch and operate. This, in turn, has added to the pressure to squeeze more performance out of currently operating satellites.
Which of the following, if true, taken together with the information above, best supports the conclusion that the cost of television satellites will continue to increase?
(A) Since the risk to insurers of satellites is spread over relatively few units, insurance premiums are necessarily very high.
(B) When satellites reach orbit and then fail, the causes of failure are generally impossible to pinpoint with confidence.
(C) The greater the performance demands placed on satellites, the more frequently those satellites break down.
(D) Most satellites are produced in such small numbers that no economies of scale can be realized.
(E) Since many satellites are built by unwieldy international consortia, inefficiencies are inevitable.

C

加强的题要从文中推出


12. Tocqueville, a nineteenth-century writer known for his study of democracy in the United States, believed that a government that centralizes power in one individual or institution is dangerous to its citizens. Biographers claim that Tocqueville disliked-centralized government because he blamed Napoleon's rule for the poverty of his childhood in Normandy.
Which of the following, if true, would cast the most serious doubt on the biographers' claim?

(A) Although Napoleon was popularly blamed at the time for the terrible living conditions in Normandy, historians now know that bad harvests were really to blame for the poor economic conditions.
(B) Napoleon was notorious for refusing to share power with any of his political associates.
(C) Tocqueville said he knew that if his father had not suffered ill health, his family would have had a steady income and a comfortable standard of living.
(D) Although Tocqueville asserted that United States political life was democratic, the United States of the nineteenth century allowed political power to be concentrated in a few institutions.
(E) Tocqueville once wrote in a letter that, although his childhood was terribly impoverished, it was not different from the experience of his friends and neighbors in Normandy.

E11C

考的是后面he blamed Napoleon's rule for the poverty of his childhood in Normandy.这句话的小因果关系


13. Radio interferometry is a technique for studying details of celestial objects that combines signals intercepted by widely spaced radio telescopes. This technique requires ultraprecise timing, exact knowledge of the locations of the telescopes, and sophisticated computer programs. The successful interferometric linking of an Earth-based radio telescope with a radio telescope on an orbiting satellite was therefore a significant technological accomplishment.
Which of the following can be correctly inferred from the statements above?
(A) Special care was taken in the launching of the satellite so that the calculations of its orbit would be facilitated.
(B) The signals received on the satellite are stronger than those received by a terrestrial telescope.
(C) The resolution of detail achieved by the satellite-Earth interferometer system is inferior to that achieved by exclusively terrestrial systems.
(D) The computer programs required for making use of the signals received by the satellite required a long time for development.
(E) The location of an orbiting satellite relative to locations on Earth can be well enough known for interferometric purposes.

E1111

归纳提,不用读懂前提怎么推结论,用无关选项来排除

 

CRITICAL REASONING TEST SECTION 6
30 MINUTES 20 QUESTIONS

14. Rural households have more purchasing power than do urban or suburban households at the same income level, since some of the income urban and suburban households use for food and shelter can be used by rural households for other needs.
Which of the following inferences is best supported by the statement made above?
(A) The average rural household includes more people than does the average urban or suburban household.
(B) Rural households have lower food and housing costs than do either urban or suburban households.
(C) Suburban households generally have more purchasing power than do either rural or urban households.
(D) The median income of urban and suburban households is generally higher than that of rural households.
(E) All three types of households spend more of their income on food and housing than on all other purchases combined.

B

 

15(P51-2). In 1985 state border colleges in Texas lost the enrollment of more than half, on average, of the Mexican nationals they had previously served each year. Teaching faculties have alleged that this extreme drop resulted from a rise in tuition for international and out-of-state students from to 0 per credit hour.
Which of the following, if feasible, offers the best prospects for alleviating the problem of the drop in enrollment of Mexican nationals as the teaching faculties assessed it?
(A) Providing grants-in-aid to Mexican nationals to study in Mexican universities
(B) Allowing Mexican nationals to study in Texas border colleges and to pay in-state tuition rates, which are the same as the previous international rate
(C) Reemphasizing the goals and mission of the Texas state border colleges as serving both in-state students and Mexican nationals
(D) Increasing the financial resources of Texas colleges by raising the tuition for in-state students attending state institutions
(E) Offering career counseling for those Mexican nationals who graduate from state border colleges and intend to return to Mexico

B

 


If the airspace around centrally located airports were restricted to commercial airliners and only those private planes equipped with radar, most of the private-plane traffic would be forced to use outlying airfields. Such a reduction in the amount of private-plane traffic would reduce the risk of midair collision around the centrally located airports.

16(P52-4). The conclusion drawn in the first sentence depends on which of the following assumptions?
(A) Outlying airfields would be as convenient as centrally located airports for most pilots of private planes.
(B) Most outlying airfields are not equipped to handle commercial-airline traffic.
(C) Most private planes that use centrally located airports are not equipped with radar.
(D) Commercial airliners are at greater risk of becoming involved in midair collisions than are private planes.
(E) A reduction in the risk of midair collision w ould eventually lead to increases in commercial-airline traffic.

C

 

17(P53-5). Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the conclusion drawn in the second sentence?
(A) Commercial airliners are already required by law to be equipped with extremely sophisticated radar systems.
(B) Centrally located airports are experiencing over-crowded airspace primarily because of sharp increases in commercial-airline traffic.
(C) Many pilots of private planes would rather buy radar equipment than be excluded from centrally located airports.
(D) The number of midair collisions that occur near centrally located airports has decreased in recent years.
(E) Private planes not equipped with radar systems cause a disproportionately large number of midair collisions around centrally located airports.

E

 

18(p53-6). Which of the following best completes the passage below?
Established companies concentrate on defending what they already have. Consequently, they tend not to be innovative themselves and tend to underestimate the effects of the innovations of others. The clearest example of this defensive strategy is the fact that…….

(A) ballpoint pens and soft-tip markers have eliminated the traditional market for fountain pens, clearing the way for the marketing of fountain pens as luxury or prestige items
(B) a highly successful automobile was introduced by the same company that had earlier introduced a model that had been a dismal failure
(C) a once-successful manufacturer of slide rules reacted to the introduction of electronic calculators by trying to make better slide rules
(D) one of the first models of modern accounting machines, designed for use in the banking industry, was purchased by a public library as well as by banks
(E) the inventor of a commonly used anesthetic did not intend the product to be used by dentists, who currently account for almost the entire market for that drug

AC

不革新也低估别人革新的效果

 

19(p54-7). Most archaeologists have held that people first reached the Americas less than 20,000 years ago by crossing a land bridge into North America. But recent discoveries of human shelters in South America dating from 32,000 years ago have led researchers to speculate that people arrived in South America first, after voyaging across the Pacific, and then spread northward.
Which of the following, if it were discovered, would be pertinent evidence against the speculation above?
(A) A rock shelter near Pittsburgh, Pennsylvania, contains evidence of use by human beings 19,000 years ago.
(B) Some North American sites of human habitation predate any sites found in South America.
(C) The climate is warmer at the 32,000-year-old south American site than at the oldest known North American site.
(D) The site in South America that was occupied 32,000 years ago was continuously occupied until 6,000 years ago.
(E) The last Ice Age, between 11,500 and 20,000 years ago, considerably lowered worldwide sea levels.

AB

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 


 [Y1]假设

 [Y2]无关词



 
ConquerGmat @ 2007-04-17 02:32

2007-04-16 单词 - 收录的单词 - 1h